Joint Fires Observer (JFO) Course Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Range Shift refers to the amount to add or drop in the nearest 100 meters from the known point to the target. Which option best describes this value?
• In the CFF example, which information is included in the read-back after the initial call?
• Which directorate is primarily responsible for developing and refining joint operation plans?
• General Purpose Bombs characteristics include explosive weight as a percentage of total weight. What is the typical percentage?
• The GAU-23 'Bushmaster' is located on the AC-130W on which side?
• What capability does the WCMD INS tail kit provide after release?
• Which item is listed as F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that indicates a large capacity to carry ordnance?
• Which of the following is NOT a METT-TC element?
• Who is the Fire Support Coordinator (FSCOORD)?
• What is the Army force structure as listed, from largest to smallest units?
• Which control type allows clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement without requiring visual acquisition?
• The Airspace Control Authority (ACA) is primarily responsible for which of the following?
• Which is listed as an advantage of the AC-130?
• In a Polar Plot method, how is the target located?
• Which statement best describes the Method of Fire and Control?
• CBU weapons are best suited for which type of targets?
• What CBU is nicknamed 'Gator'?
• What is the Air Operations Center (AOC)?
• In the CFF example, what does the phrase At My Command indicate?
• Which doctrine is described as the fundamental principle guiding the employment of forces of two or more services in coordinated action and is promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
• Which F-16 Ordnance item is a guided bomb type listed for that aircraft?
• Which element links the Army unit to the ASOC/TACP for close air support?
• Which term is transmitted as SPLASH when five seconds remain before detonation?
• What does Lateral Shift measure in a JFO targeting context?
• Which system provides near real-time data to efficiently execute the battle plan and can detect, identify, and classify targets on the ground using SAR and MTI?
• Which combination lists all three primary mortar ammunition types?
• What does Detailed Integration achieve?
• In a fire mission, the "size of the element" refers to which unit type?
• Bomb on Coordinate statement true description?
• What is Close Air Support?
• Area Fire is used for which purpose?
• Which is a disadvantage of CBUs?
• AWACS stands for which of the following?
• Which of the following is listed as an AC-130 mission category?
• Which of the following is listed as an AC-130 limitation?
• Who designates the JFACC?
• Which term refers to a commander authorized to exercise combatant command?
• Which pair correctly identifies the two types of adjustments?
• Which statement describes Type 1 Control in relation to visual acquisition?
• What does GTL stand for?
• Which aircraft hosts the GAU-8/A Avenger?
• Which statement best describes an Impact Fuze?
• Immediate Suppression and Immediate Smoke differ from standard suppression in that:
• Which CFF mission is intended to rapidly suppress a non-active target?
• Bomb on Target requires what condition?
• Danger Close describes ordinance delivery at which distance?
• Fire Support Coordination Line describes what?
• What is the device used to initiate bomb detonation at a predetermined time and under desired circumstances?
• If a weapon system has a CEP of 20 meters, how many bombs will drop within 20 meters of the DPI?
• Where is the GAU-12/U located on the AC-130U?
• Which statement is listed as a limitation for the F-15 Strike Eagle in the material?
• Time Fuze: When is the delay initiated?
• Which statement correctly defines the relationship between precision weapons and accurate weapons using CEP values?
• What is the Joint Air Request Net (JARN) primarily used for?
• Which item is included in the First Transmission?
• Which of the following is a listed AC-130 mission category?
• Which item is listed as F-16 Ordnance that represents a guided bomb type?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles plans?
• A GPS-guided weapon is essentially what?
• Which unit provides the JFACC with the capability of real-time operation control of forces and the current air picture and asset status?
• Which statement correctly describes Air Interdiction?
• Which capability is listed for F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that relates to long-range targeting?
• How many rounds does the GAU-8/A have and how many bursts does it translate to?
• Which item is included in the First Transmission besides Observer Identification?
• Which system provides the capability to plan and conduct air operations?
• The GAU-8/A is accurate in excess of what altitude, with armor-piercing effective within what altitude?
• General Purpose Bombs are described as
• Which statement about Terminal Guidance Operations is accurate?
• CBU-89 'Gator' is an anti-armor minefield that deploys which combination of mines?
• What is the purpose of the Gun Target Line (GTL)?
• Which capability is listed under A-10 Capes as Long Loiter (2 hours)?
• Which doctrine is promulgated by the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, in coordination with the combatant commanders and the joint staff?
• The Area Air Defense Commander (AADC) is responsible for which type of operations?
• Which is an advantage of cluster munitions (CBUs)?
• Which item is mentioned as part of the A-10 Capes regarding survivability features?
• TIC stands for which term?
• What transmission is sent after each round fired in artillery communications?
• What is Target Location Error?
• What is the typical AC-130 orbit altitude?
• The Air Operations Center (AOC) is the operations center for which commander?
• Which statement about the AGM-65 Maverick is true?
• Which statement best describes suppression?
• ROUNDS COMPLETE indicates that what has occurred?
• Which of the following is NOT a possible content of the Method of Engagement?
• What defines a high-angle trajectory?
• A Warning Order includes which of the following elements?
• What are the four methods that cause a fuze to function?
• Which term describes the most forward friendly forces position?
• Vertical Shift is the amount up or down measured to the nearest how many meters?
• What is the role of Air Defense Artillery (ADA) in air defense liaison?
• What is the correct expansion for DCA, as it relates to air space defense?
• Which center operates as the joint operations center for air operations during joint missions?
• What does the Joint Air Operations Center (JAOC) represent in joint operations?
• Which system increases the surveillance and command and control capabilities for air operations?
• The Theater Air Control System provides the capability to plan and conduct air operations.
• What is the B-1B Lancer mission according to the material?
• Who appoints the Joint Force Commander?
• The 40mm M2A1 'Bofors' cannon is located where on the AC-130? (and what is its rate and ammo capacity)
• All GBU are composed of what?
• GBU-38 is a variant of which munition program?
• Which weapon is the A-10 equipped with as its 30mm gun?
• What is the goal of Fire for Effect?
• What are the three purposes of a fuze?
• OPORD is best described as which of the following?
• Which of the following is NOT a documented method of target location?
• The GAU-12/U 'Equalizer' is mounted on which AC-130 variant?
• Among participants in the CAS process, who is responsible for the effective and safe planning and execution of CAS?
• What command is used to adjust fire when using a polar method?
• Which item is included in a CFF Target Description?
• Which bomb is the 500 lb general purpose bomb?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles logistics?
• Which statement is NOT true about fuze function methods?
• When is "Adjust Fire" announced?
• What does PGM stand for in precision munitions context?
• GTL describes which element in targeting?
• Which statement best describes a Call for Fire?
• Forward Air Controller (Airborne), denoted FAC (A), refers to which role?
• Which entities can supply targeting data?
• What does the acronym DCA stand for?
• What is the SHOT transmission in artillery communications?
• Which Joint Staff directorate handles intelligence?
• What is the role of the Control and Reporting Center (CRC)?
• Which entity is typically designated as both the Airspace Control Authority (ACA) and Area Air Defense Commander (AADC)?
• An example of multinational doctrine is NATO.
• Shifts (Lateral, Range, Vertical) describe adjustments to what?
• The CBU-87 uses how many BLU-97 submunitions?
• Who is the senior artilleryman at each echelon of command?
• Normal weight range for General Purpose Bombs?
• Which designation refers to High Explosive Incendiary with Tracer?
• Which directorate would you consult for coordinating airspace control and air defense integration into operations?
• What is the Pi value (Probability of incapacitation) used for risk-estimate distances?
• The Joint Operations Center (JOC) is the Command Post of the Joint Force Commander and is operated by which Joint Staff directorate?
• Which of the following is NOT a CFF mission type?
• GTL stands for what in artillery terminology?
• What does GTL help determine in targeting?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by the term JFIRE?
• Which doctrine applies to the employment of forces of a single service?
• Which capability is listed for F-15 Strike Eagle Capes that aids all-weather operations?
• What does a Warning Order accomplish for a fire mission?
• Danger Close for mortars and artillery is within how many meters of friendly troops?
• What is the rate of fire for the GAU-23 on the AC-130W?
• TOT/TTT is shown as an example of which category in fire control terminology?
• GFC stands for which of the following?
• Which F-15 Strike Eagle capability is described as enabling precision targeting?
• Precision Fire is described as what?
• CBU-89 uses magnetic target sensing and deploys how much trip wire?
• Which system provides the interface between the Army and tactical air support agencies of other services in planning, evaluating, processing, and coordinating air support requirements and operations?
• Which capability is explicitly listed for F-16 Capes to indicate operation in all weather conditions?
• Which doctrine is exemplified by the example Air Force Doctrine?
• HE mortars damage their targets through which methods? (one or both)
• Which doctrine is exemplified by JFIRE?
• Which role is trained to request, control, and adjust surface-to-surface fires and provide timely targeting information in support of CAS?
• Which is listed as an AC-130 limitation?
• What is the GAU-8/A's rate of fire?
• What is an advantage of using a Laser Guided Bomb (LGB)?
• What is a Command Post?
• Which munition type is explicitly listed under F-15 Strike Eagle Ordnance for air-to-ground use?
• Which transmission is sent after each round fired?
• In Laser Polar operations, directions are accurate to the nearest how many mils?
• Which statement best describes Precision Fire?
• What does the Airspace Control Order (ACO) provide?
• What does JDAM stand for?
• TRA involves processing of available information to ascertain an ALR to friendly forces or noncombatants; the supported commander will weigh the benefits and liabilities to determine a particular type of control.
• If you hear ROUNDS COMPLETE, what has happened?
• Which statement correctly describes the relationship between GBU and dumb bombs?
• The 20 mm M61A1 Vulcan is primarily used for what role?
• What is the Fires Cell responsible for?
• Which term is one of the four basic categories of errors that influence air-delivered weapon accuracy?
• Type 1 Control requires the ability to visually acquire the attacking aircraft and the target under attack, enabling direct positive control.
• Which statement correctly describes the sensing method of a Proximity Fuze?
• Which system guides EO/IR/IRR guided weapons?
• Which ordnance is NOT listed for the AC-130?
• Risk-Estimate Distance is used to estimate risk in terms of percent of friendly casualties that may result from an air strike. Distances are defined by whom?
• Which statement best describes the role of the Joint Force Land Component Commander (JFLCC)?
• Which item is listed as a disadvantage of the AC-130?
• From a forward position, which entity directs the action of combat aircraft engaged in CAS and other offensive air operations?
• What is the Air Support Operations Center (ASOC) responsible for?
• What is a Cluster Bomb Unit (CBU) primarily used for?
• Which capability does JSTARS provide on the battlefield?
• Coordinate-based targeting does not require tallied by aircrew.
• Which role is the Joint Terminal Attack Controller?
• Proximity Fuze uses what to measure time between transmission and reception of a radar wave?
• Which shift measures the elevation difference between the known point and the target?
• Which statement describes Type 2 Control?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an AC-130 mission?
• What is the function of the Net Control Station (NCS) in the JARN communications flow?
• Nose and/or tail fuzes can be used to do what?
• Which of the following describes CEP?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is responsible for Manpower and Personnel?
• Type 2 Control corresponds to which scenario?
• Which term refers to the airborne extension of a TACP/JTAC?
• What is the A-10 mission according to the material?
• What does the WCMD INS tail kit provide after release?
• The need for a JFACC is based on which of the following factors?
• Terminal Attack Control entails what authority?
• Which term marks the end of the planned firing sequence when the required rounds have been fired?
• What does HARM stand for?
• Which of the following is listed in the A-10 Ordnance as a type of air-to-ground ordnance?
• Danger Close for 5 inch naval guns and TLAM is within how many meters?
• What does the acronym OCA stand for?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is primarily responsible for operations planning and execution?
• The CEP relates to delivery accuracy; which statement best describes CEP?
• What is the primary role of a Tactical Air Control Party (TACP)?
• Which item is transmitted in the Second Transmission?
• Which representation of MAXORD/MSA values is shown in the example?
• Which weapon is listed under A-10 Ordnance as a direct-fire weapon?
• What is the purpose of Observer Identification in a Call for Fire?
• Which capability is listed for F-16 Capes that corresponds to a data link with other units?
• What is the Airspace Control Authority (ACA)?
• Which phrase indicates a Fire for Effect with a Laser Grid mission?
• Which air action requires detailed integration with ground forces?
• Sensor Fuzed Weapon (SFW) within CBU-97 detects heat and scans with which sensor?
• What is the typical CEP range for the guided munitions described?
• Which is a key difference of Laser Grid compared to a standard grid mission?
• Which SPLASH transmission timing is correct?
• Which statement best describes CEP?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary mortar ammunition types listed?
• What is the 1,000 foot buffer applied in the Gun Target Line concept?
• Close Proximity represents a specific distance.
• Which of the following is NOT one of the six call for fire elements?
• The CBU-87 is most effective against which type of targets?
• The GAU-8/A Avenger was designed primarily as what?
• In Laser Grid operations, how are corrections transmitted?
• What are the three primary ammunition types for Mortars?
• Which statement is true about Bomb on Target versus Bomb on Coordinate?
• Which item is a valid part of the Method of Engagement?
• Which distance constitutes Danger Close?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an aircraft ammunition type?
• Multinational Doctrine is the fundamental principle guiding the employment of forces of two or more nations in a coordinated action.
• What is the rated high rate of fire for the 20 mm M61A1 Vulcan?
• What is required for an LGB to achieve accurate guidance?
• The Joint Force Air Component Commander (JFACC) has control of air assets and the capability to plan, task, and control joint air operations. This designation is typically associated with which two components?
• Which items should be contained in the Target Description for a CFF?
• Which Joint Staff directorate is responsible for Communications Systems?
• Which item is included in the Third Transmission?
• Terminal Guidance Operations description?
• Forward Line of Own Troops refers to which of the following?
• Which designation corresponds to High Explosive Incendiary (HEI) ammunition?
• Which center is normally collocated with the FSCOORD?